Nonsense. A political science class in an american-established state university would hardly qualify as religious conformism, now, would it?
Who, aside from you, has insinuated such?
No. The holocaust is a matter of standard history -- not a question of theology.
As is the Inquizition; the slaughter of the Huguenots, Albingeses, etc.; what is called the "Midnight of rhe Dark Ages", and the "Rule of the Harlots" in reference to the papacy; etc.
Poverty is an evil in itself and it most certainly has nothing to do with being protestant. The point is that women enjoy the same career potentials as men in that country -- unlike your women (who are the more individualistic and career-oriented). Is that not the equality you were looking for?
More deception. What has the RCC done to eliminate poverty? In every country in which it has had an immense amount of influence poverty has grown. Look at Brazil, Argentina, Guatamala, Mexico, Spain, etc. NONE have risen to the wealth of the US under Protestant influence. In the meantime, the coffers of the RCC have grown beyond belief, and the priests live quite comfortably regardless of the poverty around them. Not quite what Christ had in mind.
As to equality, you again avoid the discussion by pleading ignorance. You try to limit it to a qualifier being the sexes when you know quite well that my question was not that at all, unless you are such a dolt that common sense cannot permeate your brianwashed mind. Is there even equality within the RCC if you want to use the sexes? Is there a famale "pope", or a female "bishop"?
So, whether you want to use poverty as a measure, or equality, the RCC is lacking.
Now, you might want to try the argument that certain religions systematically bring about poverty. Buddhism for instance, teaches people to accept suffering as a necessary component of life. But then again, how are you going to reconcile this with japan, china, and the little asian economic tigers?
Has nothing to do with Christiandom.
Obviously, you are committing one of the most common error of logic -- that you often find yourself immersed in thought at the onset of a fart, you stupidly conclude that your fart occurs as a logical function of thought.
Obviously you are the scent of the fart.
Modern constitutionalism rests on the existence of natural law. Natural law was first coined by aristotle to refer to the immutable laws of nature. To my knowledge, natural law was first used within the context of political science by augustine then thoroughly explained by thomas aquainas.
Now, granted that the social contract philosophers and modern constitutionalists were protestants, the idea they were using came directly from the work of DOCTORS OF THE CHURCH.
Guess it is something the RCC has determined it need not practice. Or, could you just be full of BS. In any event, Jefferson, Locke, Rosseau, Smith, and many others, would strongly disagree with your conclusion.
The significance of early christian thought in political philosophy rests on the distinct and traceable evolution of the concept of natural law FROM PURELY THEOLOGICAL SPECULATION WITHIN THE CHRISTIAN FRAMEWORK.
Is that clear enough?
Well, it certainly explains your braindead attitude when it comes to the influence of Protestantism on the "American experiment".