Why do you spell God with a small "g" rather then a capital "G"? Scripturally speaking, the use of a small "g" signifies a pagan deity.
There is no particular reason for it.
However, can you cite any scripture either in the OT, and the word of God the Father, or in the NT, and the Word of Christ, that even indicates any reference to the concept that a high priest, priest, deacon, pastor, or whomever, was not to be married? In fact, does not the scripture indicate just the opposite so that a man may not be tempted by the fleshly desires?
Christ was the one exception, and He did so to perform his "calling", and to remain perfect, without sin, or blemish. Paul was the other exception, and he was born a eunuch so he either had not the desire, or was unable to perform.
Why should I cite scripture when I already told you that the vow of celibacy doesn't come from scripture? In fact, classical greek philosophy is embeded in christianity (thanks to the pauline tradition). Do you also have a problem with greek philosophy synthesizing with judaism and early christianity to form what christianity is today?
Never said I graduated from a Catholic college. Said I was prepared to do so by my family. However, is there any other example of a Christian Church before the RCC having such power? And, setting aside Calvin in Geneva, and the Church of England, has any other wielded such power?
That explains it then.
What you do not seem to realize is that ALL ORGANIZED RELIGIONS ARE POLITICAL ENTITIES. That is why augustine of hippo's civitates dei is considered a political treatise. There is a distinct relationship between the 'city of man' and the 'city of god' -- obviously, since the church exists within the political order.
And since the 'people of god' is political in nature, it would necessarily demonstrate some (if not all) functions of the political association.
First off, the RCC refused education to the vast majority of the people. Only the priests, and the privileged, were allowed an education.
Of course it would refuse the vast majority of the people. The idea of free, compulsary public education wouldn't come for hundreds of years. The ancient greeks had educational institutions confined to the privileged class and you think of them as the epitome of culture and learning, do you not?
Secondly, is it your contention that the "Rule of Harlots", which occured during this time, was driven by God? Do you actully think that while "popes" are living with concubines, and whores, having bastard children, killing each other off to gain power, etc., is being the "light of the world"?
No. I already told you -- the church is THE PEOPLE OF GOD. These popes were mainly vain and greedy people who inflicted injury to the people of god. That is why it was necessary for pope john paul 2 to issue the millenium apology, no?
Where in scripture is that philosophy stated?
LOL.
Its called soteriology. The bible is a collection of written accounts spanning more than 5 thousand years, is it not? Its general theme or outline (what we call salvation history) is how god CONTINUOUSLY AND UNILATERALLY try to bridge the gap between the divine (himself) and the created order -- a gap brought about by the fall of man in genesis, is it not?
If that is the case, then it would be reasonable to think that salvation history does not stop at the crucifixion, resurrection nor even at the time of revelations (believed to have been written at about the time of emperor nero's reign). Now, unless you consider mankind saved from the radical evil of the human condition presently, there is no reason to believe god's self-revelation abruptly stopped two thousand years ago, no? And if god's self-revelation is happening presently (a time beyond the scope of the scripture), what do you propose to make out of this self-revelation?
First off, scripture does not mention purgatory;
Correct, its not in scripture. It is a way by which a fallible human mind comes to term with the concept of divine justice -- which is unknowable in the first place.
I don't see how thinking about purgatory contradicts revealed truth.
the buying of "indulgences" as a means of getting into heaven;
Who said indulgences were meant to bribe one's self into heaven? 'Salvation is from god's grace alone'. After all this time being a catholic, didn't anyone tell you this?
praying to anyone other then Jesus for ones needs;
Sigh.
Prayer is merely a conversation. Have you not heard of an officer of the court 'pray' for a favorable decision? You need to read the late pope john paul 2 best selling book 'crossroad...' if you are interested in a more philosophical explanation of prayer.
In catechism, however, prayer is categorized by either adoration (which is the manner of prayer reserved for god) and veneration (which is the manner of prayer addressing the saints).
The idea, of course, comes from jesus himself when he interceded to the father on mankind's behalf and entrusted the apostles to do as he did after the resurrection. All this comes from the petric tradition, the rock on which jesus built his church, and his commandment to the apostles to go forth and proclaim the good news at the expense of their very lives.
confession of ones sins to a Priest, and then saying a few prayers for absolution of sin; etc. Scripture does teach that the believer should confess ones sins "to another", however, the act of forgiveness is for the one offended, or for Christ, not for some Priest.
Sigh.
Reconciliation is a SACRAMENT. It is a ritual symbolizing a higher truth. The act itself pales to irrelevance compared to the theological truth it is meant to represent -- that god's forgiveness is UNIVERSAL and that there is no need to beat yourself senseless to gain it.
You think mouthing the 'act of contrition' does anything spiritual to an individual if he does not contemplate and genuinely ask forgiveness for his sins while reciting it????
Here's a news flash for you -- god forgives the sins you haven't even committed yet and even those you are not even aware are sins. What the sacrament intends for you to do is to forgive yourself.
Secondly, the Church is the "body of Christ" if you had read the scripture.
Same banana -- since EVERY SINGLE ONE OF US IS INVITED TO PARTAKE OF IT.
What's your point?
As to the "conscience", it was placed there to tell one of the righteousness of his actions. The knowledge of good, and evil, is stored within that concept. Each individual is faced with those choices, and then he has free will to decide if he should follow those dictates, or not.
Correct. It is the 'semina verbi', the 'seeds of the word' that is present in every single individual regardless of religious affiliation. Your conscience is the faculty by which god speaks to you.
The catholic church recognizes the existence of the semina verbi in ALL religions. And in recognizing this -- that god speaks to all people -- that RESPECT AND RELIGIOUS TOLERANCE BECOMES A FUNDAMENTAL IMPERATIVE.
I forgot the title but I'm fairly certain this is covered in a church encyclical.
It was till the RCC came along. That was the purpose of the letters of the Apostles.
You think that mindlessly conforming to scriptural text is the end-all, be-all of christianity?????? Unbelieveable!!!!!
Christianity was a radical departure from judaism simply because the law was placed within a dimension of love -- a previously unheard of and preposterous concept.
Within this context, the difference between not stealing from your neighbor because you fear god's punishment and not doing the same thing out of genuine respect for your neighbor's well-being, becomes CLEAR.
The former merely satisfies the requirement of the law while the latter satisfies the requirement of the commandment of love.
Get it?