Because the "massive government spending" was more massive toward "corporate welfare" than toward social programs that really would make a difference, as they have done in Europe for decades!
CAn you support those statements?
Is corporate welfare greater?
Is social welfare not enough?
Is absolute poverty less in Europe?
Here is a useful statistic: the total spent on welfare amounts to $16,800 per poor person per year.
http://www.heritage.org/research/re...increases-welfare-spending-to-historic-levels
"Since the beginning of the War on Poverty, the U.S. has spent
$15.9 trillion on means-tested welfare. Instead of reducing the causes of poverty, this spending has made the problem dramatically worse. By undermining intact families and eroding the work ethic in low-income communities, the welfare state has made families less capable of supporting themselves today than they were when the War on Poverty began.
For example:
* After adjusting for inflation, welfare spending is 13 times higher today than in 1965, when the War on Poverty started.
* The out-of-wedlock birthrate is 40 percent, and the African–American out-of-wedlock birthrate is 72 percent. When the War on Poverty began, the out-of-wedlock birthrate was 7 percent.[7]
* More than 40 million people are on food stamps. Four decades ago, only 4.3 million people were on the rolls.[8] "
http://www.heritage.org/research/re...ments-principles-of-reform-and-the-next-steps
"Using an absolute poverty measurement method, the picture looks different: poverty in some European countries is higher."
http://ideas.repec.org/p/pra/mprapa/5313.html