That's true.
Which part? Can you name a chapter that we know to be passed down by word of mouth? Because the last time I read it most parts actually claim in the writing themselves to be written from the mouth or hand of the author. And the parts that do not make such a claim are well known to be written from the mouth or hand of the author. Unless you are claiming that when God dictated the account of the creation to Moses that that is an example of an oral history then what you say is just a theory about the bible's authorship. But that is not what you meant is it?
Which part? I chose the gospel of Matthew at random, and came up with
this:
Various estimates have placed the date of Matthew's composition anywhere from AD 50 - to AD 100. But before a date can be decided, its relation to the Gospel of Mark must first be addressed. If Mark was written first, then Matthew must have a later date (and vice-versa). The most widely accepted hypothesis is that both Matthew and Luke used Mark as a source for various reasons. Matthew even reproduced about ninety percent of Mark, while Luke reproduced about sixty percent. [9] Without going into much detail on the dating of Mark's Gospel, [10] it was probably written somewhere between AD 50 and AD 55. Consequently, Matthew's Gospel could have reasonably been written anywhere between AD 55 and AD 60.
Fifty five or sixty years is more than long enough for a story being told and retold to have been embellished many times over in order to make it more interesting. That seems to me the best explanation for stories like turning water into wine, raising Lazerus from the dead, and feeding a whole crowd from one little kid's lunch. Such stories are simply not to be taken seriously.
Do you mean copied and copied? Yes it has. So what? There are few copyist errors in the bible. Very few.
Yep it has been translated. But not one of the translations has altered a single one of the copies. the copies of the manuscripts are still unaltered by any of the translations.
You know that the manuscripts were unaltered by translation, how again? I've had some experience translating from English to Spanish and back, both modern languages as we know, and am more than aware of the pitfalls of translation. Translating from dead languages to modern ones has to have even more pitfalls, many of them unknown.
Take the word "virgin", for example. The original word meant a young woman, or a woman who had not given birth. The virgin birth of Jesus, then, did not mean that Mary and Joseph had not consummated their marriage, but that the Messiah was the first born son. That was a big deal for a couple of reasons: Ancient prophecy said that the Messiah would be the first born son. Further, being the first born son meant that Jesus would inherit whatever Mary and Joseph accumulated in this life.
But, the mistranslation led to a whole doctrine of "immaculate conception".
Well assuming that you can figure out which parts are supposed to be literal and which parts are supposed to be figurative none of the processes that have delivered the manuscripts we have warrant dismissing the literal parts. Case in point: the bible describes the temple of the Jews. Archology tells us that the temple was actually there when the bible says it was there. clearly that is one part that can be taken literally.
I think you just answered your own question. The parts that can be taken literally are the parts that can be shown to have happened by archeological evidence. There is no such evidence for the Garden of Eden nor for Noah's ark. Both of those stories are simply allegorical. There is no evidence that the Red Sea actually parted. That is simply a legend.
Do you want to change your statement from "it' cant be taken literally to "some of it" can't be taken literally? You would be right that figurative parts should not be taken literally. But would you be right that some literal parts can't be taken literally? Lets agree on a part that is meant to be taken literally and then you show us why it can't be taken literally.
You wont be able to.
OK, you win that point. Some of it can't be taken literally. Most of it can't be taken literally. Of course, if the Bible talks of a temple, and such a temple has actually been found, then the existence of said temple can be taken literally.