OK, but not in the same way you thought it was.
I said there would be a consumer class, you said there wouldn't be one, so then I pointed out for that to be true, you would have to kill (or let die) all the sick, elderly, and disabled. I knew precisely who the members of the consumer class would be, I.E., the non-productive and under-productive members of society.
Not under Communism:
"...Communism abolishes eternal truths, it abolishes all religion, and all morality, instead of constituting them on a new basis; it therefore acts in contradiction to all past historical experience." - Communist Manifesto chapter 2
Can a slave exercize the long list of rights I posted as a response to your question"how is a communist different from a slave?".
Slaves have no rights, but then again, neither do people living under Communism, they have "privileges", which are subject to whim of a single tyrant (the slave master) or, in the case of a "Democracy" the whim of society (the slave master).
I dont have to own food to eat it. I can just pick it up and eat it.
The moment you take possession of that apple, it becomes your property, at which point your neighbor Fred can take it from you, because you have no right to property.
Only if I harm them in the process.
You said:
"If the burgousie dont kindly step out of thier positions of power, then they will need to be pulled out of them by force."
How will you use force, to pull the bourgeoisie out of power, without harming them?
That was in response to: Have you ever been robbed, mugged or had something stolen from you?
You didn't specify which one, but when it happened, where you indifferent about it? Did you rationalize the theft by saying to yourself, "I didn't have a right to the property that was taken"?
Firstly, property rights first came along in ancient Sumer,
I very specifically said the concept of property as an
individual right. Property rights prior to the enlightenment were held only by kings, nobility and other societal elites.
Secondly, rights dont exist.
Yes they do and I've proven so by an hypothetical example which can also be proven in the real world... But if you really believe rights don't exist, then your entire list of "rights" that Communists would have are not rights at all.
There are privileges, because "rights" cannot be taken or given if they just exist.
That is simply not true. Individual rights cannot be "taken" but they can be denied by force, which is why they must be protected.... "to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men..." So despite their existence, they need protection from those who would violate them.
Masters and Slaves
The mere bestowal of privileges, with the permission to enjoy them, is not the recognition of rights; it is rather an implied denial of their existence. Men do not grant permission nor confer privileges where they recognize rights. The power to permit and to confer, carries with it the power to refuse and to withhold. Both the master and the slave understand this, where permissions are most frequently given. It is injurious to confer, as it is degrading to accept as a boon, what belongs to every man AS man, by absolute and inherent RIGHT. The rights of investigation, of free speech, of mental culture, of religious liberty, and of conscience, are of this class. Man may no more affect to confer them or permit their exercise, than he may presume to take them away. - The American Slave Code in Theory and Practice, Part I, Chapter XXII, William Goodell
Both slaves and Communists are barred from owning property. As you have just stated, Communists, like slaves, do not have rights - only privileges - because Communism doesn't recognize the existence of rights. What you are left with are privileges, granted and taken, by the whims of society.
I understand that you are influenced by Ayn Rand?
Very much so.
Wouldnt that make you an athiest?
I refer to myself as being Non-Religious because most "Atheists" are actually Anti-Theists and I don't want to be associated with those bigots. For more on that particular topic, feel free to visit my
Anti-Theism in America thread.
If so, then you should be able to see that the "rights" idea is a purely religious ideal.
No, the source of our rights are neither religious nor social:
The source of man’s rights is not divine law or congressional law, but the law of identity. A is A—and Man is Man. Rights are conditions of existence required by man’s nature for his proper survival. If man is to live on earth, it is right for him to use his mind, it is right to act on his own free judgment, it is right to work for his values and to keep the product of his work. If life on earth is his purpose, he has a right to live as a rational being: nature forbids him the irrational. Any group, any gang, any nation that attempts to negate man’s rights, is wrong, which means: is evil, which means: is anti-life. - Ayn Rand
Socialism is Evil.
I require MATERIALS to live.
But if you do not have a right to posses (own) materials, then you cannot consume them and you cannot continue to live.
Currently, just about everything in the world is owned by somebody.
Over time, everything that is owned is either consumed or redistributed.
In Communism, redistributing wealth would just mean that everyone should be able to get an equal share.
But what's the point of redistributing wealth if you cannot own property?
Material inequality is a problem of Capitalism that is based on ownership,
Material inequality is a result of values that you cannot redistribute. You can't redistribute intelligence, physical and mental ability, ambition, a solid work ethic or any of the other values that cause one individual to achieve higher than another. That is the true source of inequality and its not correctable.
the upper 1 % of the world is withholding everything from the lower 97%. Nowadays, because, as I said, everything is owned by someone, it will have to be taken to be available to everyone.
You are nearly there... you've almost verified every statement I made about why...
Socialism is Evil:
Socialism teaches that Private Property is slavery, and agitates for the lower 4/5ths of society to dissolve Private Property rights with the promise of obtaining property from the top 5th... Only to find, once having done so, that the top 1% is now the ruling class and above sacrifice for the Collective they rule.
By trying to sacrifice the rights of the top 5th for the Common Good, the bottom 4/5ths sacrifice themselves to slavery at the hands of the superior ruling class, who's rights they sought to destroy. Now slaves to the Common Good - defined for them by their rulers - individuals have no rights and no value beyond what their superiors dictate.
Without the right to posses material property (ownership), you will die and therefore be unable to exercise your other rights.
I already explained that statement, and why I consider the property rights argument invalid.
Notice that I don't dismiss any of your arguments as invalid? Rather than trying to avoid an argument by making the claim that its invalid, I prefer to demonstrate that an argument is invalid.