palerider
Well-Known Member
- Joined
- Feb 26, 2007
- Messages
- 4,624
Nonsense. You are defining the verb 'to be', which is, to exist in reality. What I refer to as a 'human being', and which is relevant to this argument, is the essence of a human being. The difference becomes obvious in view of the platonic ideas of forms and substance.
The term human being is nothing more and nothing less than the mundane term we use to describe any man, woman, or child of the species homo sapiens sapiens. Living or dead.
A living human person has both the form and substance of a human being. A dead person, on the other hand, merely has its substance. Clearly, any topic concerning an inalienable right to live refers to a human being in both form and substance.
So are you saying that dead people have no form? I was just at a funeral last week and when I looked in the coffin, I didn't see a puddle of goo. The form of a human being was in there because a human being was in there. Charlie didn't turn into something else when he died. In fact, if you look up the word form, one of the definitions is "a body esp. that of a human being". Perhaps you mean that the dead lack the etherial "substance" that we call life. In any case, they most certainly have form.
By the way, person is a legal term. If you refer to Black's Legal Dictionary. The very legal dictionary you will find in use at the Supreme Court, you will find that the legal term person is defined as "a human being".
And of course an inalenable right to live applies to the living since the dead have no life to protect. That whole line of (thought?) belongs entirely to dawkins.
I'm sure your legal dictionary does not expound on the difference, which makes your mistake understandable.
Again, when you find that you must redefine, or modify definitions, the problem is with your argument, not the definitions of words.