No. You're rights were violated -- according to the law. You own the land, house, furniture, driveway and all because that ownership is DEFINED by the law. In the same token, you cannot be deprived of them without DUE PROCESS of the law. Where did I claim such a thing? You are endowed with certain inalienable rights and no government or law may rightly deny you of them. If and when a government or law clearly deprives you of these fundamental and natural rights, then you are not bound to such laws or government and you have the right to rebel. Its all there in locke's second treatise and most social contract theories. What? You do have a right to enjoy the property which you legally acquired because the law says it. You do not, however, have an inalienable right to property. You completely misunderstood. You have a right to your property. You may not be deprived of your property without due process of law. YOUR RIGHT TO PROPERTY EXISTS BECAUSE OF THE LAW. IT CANNOT EXIST INDEPENDENT OF IT.