Dr.Who
Well-Known Member
Russell's paradox is resolved by axiomatic set theory.
Sorry, I thought you werw saying that Russell's paradox was a result of set theory.
Russell's paradox is resolved by axiomatic set theory.
Are all paradoxes a result of the self-referencing fallacy?
Sorry, I thought you werw saying that Russell's paradox was a result of set theory.
Not all. Paradoxes also arise from circular reasoning and infinite regress.
Russell's paradox comes to mind because it is considered as set-theoretic -- meaning it arises from some fundamental defect in the theory itself. The omnipotence paradox is, in my opinion, a variant of this. It ensues from a naive interpretation of the set predicate.
The question was if there are any unresolved paradoxes.
If paradoxes can be the result of self-referencing, circular reasoning, infinite regress, and who know what else then it is'nt very productive to only answer that some are resolved through set theory as an explanation of self-referencing.
What we really need to know still remiains. Are there any unresolved paradoxes?
I read the first posts of this thread and fast-forewarded to the last. Quite a jump in logic.Religion and faith as a paradox and now the scientific argument over paradoxs'. I am an athiest, there are many things I do not understand completely nor has science explained all. This does not bother me, I refuse still to appoint a diety to explain that which I currenty do not fully comprehend. And as for the other question in the thread, why should religion be excluded from government? It is the basic premis of all religions and faiths that "theirs" is the true faith, exclusive of all other. So which faith would you have in gov? Christian? Fair enough, perhaps Baptist so all dancing in public schools can be banned. Perhaps Mormon, and Mormon prayers can be recited in all public schools. Perhaps Catholic, we can add the Pope to the presidents advisors, or, my personal fav, Jehova Witness, now they can come to your door and sell the presidents agenda along with watchtower. I don't think you guys have really thought this through-
Hmmmm.
Religion is a right of thought. It is inseparable from the human person in much the same way that thought is inseparable from action. Your president brings to the oval office his entire thoughts. Who is to say that the actions of a sitting president is or isn't prompted by religious thoughts?
What you probably meant is the principle of separation of church and state. What it means is that the church may not wield the coercive powers of the state (civilian and military) nor can the state deprive the members of any church their right of thought.
In fact, it is the only way by which the essence of both the church and the state could rationally be separated.
And being an atheist (hence the absence of religion) doesn't excuse you since your thoughts on atheism can just as easily be imposed on other people (through the coercive powers of the state) as any church. What this all amounts to is a fundamental freedom of conscience.
Resolved in what sense?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Antinomy
Antinomy (Greek αντι-, for or instead of, plus νομος, law) literally means the mutual incompatibility, real or apparent, of two laws. It is a term used in logic and epistemology.
whether or not you have faith means nothing to me. I would not spend an ounce of energy to defend Jesus, Buddha, Mohammad or Satan. I would however, fight to my last breath for your right to believe. Athiesm is more common than you think, prevalent even in our nations birth. I have no need to preach, I believe athiesm is a result of very personal reflection, not the direction of others.
Correct. Just saying how the separation of church and state ought to be understood. You may not impose your belief in atheism on others using the coercive force the state.
If yours courts think it is unconstitutional to teach religion in public schools, is it similarly unconstitutional for a teacher to teach atheism? That is the dilemma that arose when your judiciary over-stepped its bounds and started ruling on what can or cannot be taught in public schools.
I have been thinking of sylogisms.
Supose that one set out a sylogism:
If: A
And: B
Then: C
And another:
If: D
And: E
Then: F
We know that A, B, D, and E are all true.
But what happens when C contradicts F?
Lets analyze a paradox with that:
"This sentence is false."
A: The sentence is either true or false.
B: it is false.
C: Then it is true
That logic is faulty since it cannot be both true and false. Therefore we must change one of the assumptions. Lets try again:
A`: The sentence is either true or false.
B`: it is true.
C`: Then it is false.
That logic is faulty since it cannot be both true and false. Therefore we must change one of the assumptions.
Can we change assumption A or A`?
Can the sentence be both false and true? No.
Can it be neither false nor true? I don't know but that would solve the dillemma. Lets set that up and ask?
D: The first sylogism is not logical
E: The second sylogism is not logical
F: at least one sentence that is either true or false cannot be either.
Hmmm? That can't be.
I don't know if there are any paradoxes that we could apply this logic to and come up stumped while not making any mistakes (I can the mistake I made above). But if we do then logic must be ilogical. (kind of in the way that 2 feet +2 feet =4 feet except at light speeds or in the big bang)
I am not particularly interested in knowing if that paradox is solved or not but in knowing if there are any that have not been solved. If any one has not been solved then the door is open to the possibility that the resolution is that logic is not logical.
Public schools can not teach atheism. That would be just as unconstitutional as teaching Catholicism, or Islam, or anything else.