Are you honestly trying to suggest that, before currency, there were no looters or moochers? Because I would contend that, since the dawn of mankind, there have been some individuals willing to use force, coercion, and trickery, to confiscate property that rightly belongs to someone else.
I am not suggesting that there were no moochers or looters before currency. If you had read my post, you would know that I said it was
harder before money- and it was. Stealing a thousand dollars worth of watermelons is much harder than making off with an equivalent in currency. Also, do not assume that the "looters and moochers" are poor people. Since the dawn of time, people have figured out ways to trick others out of their money- today, many of them operate on Wall Street.
But I'm digressing. Suffice it to say that it would help the discussion if you would address what I actually posted.
It's not really an argument so much as an observation....
Begging the question is a type of logical fallacy in which a proposition relies on an implicit premise within itself to establish the truth of that same proposition. In other words, it is a statement that refers to its own assertion to prove the assertion.
You're premise is that consumption drives an economy and, therefore, having 100% consumption would create the best possible economy is not logical. Goods must be produced
before they can be consumed. Increases in consumption must be preceded by increases in production, we cannot consume more than has been produced, and such an increase in production is only possible through savings and investments, i.e. through the accumulation of wealth. That wealth serves as the capital by which new products and techniques are researched and, if efficacious, adopted.
You're mistaken, GenSeneca- I made no mention of an economy consisting of 100% consumption and zero production. I said that the most robust economy would be one in which everyone spent everything they made. They can produce all they want- as long as they spend all they make, it fits my point.
“Economic growth” means the rise of an economy’s productivity, due to the discovery of new products, new techniques, which means: due to the achievements of men’s productive ability. - Ayn Rand
LOL! Rand was not an economist . . . simply a fascist! The fact that you quote a fiction author indicates that you may not understand what constitutes economic reality.
"Economic Growth" means the increasing ability of a society to fill the needs and wants of it's economy. And since I have made no mention whatsoever of economic growth, it's irrelevent. (And the strawman argument is also a logical fallacy)
Now, depending on your definition of "spending", it could be said that we already have an economy very much like the one you've described - Thanks to wealth.
The amount of spending varies from year to year, and season to season, but I do not think that we have ever had an economy where we all spent everything we made. The point is not that spending is better than credit, so I'll skip over that part of the strawman argument.
I'll try to make this simpler: Stores hire when they have more customers than they can handle. Manufacturers increase their workforce when the demand for their products exceeds their current production capacity. Unless there is spending, there is no economy- and the more that people spend, the more robust the economy (I'm NOT speaking of economic growth, mind you).
Would you agree that the number of jobs in a given society is in direct proportion to the amount of money being exchanged, or not?