GenSeneca
Well-Known Member
If someone violates the rights of another, by initiating the use of force or perpetrating fraud, then the violator has already yielded his own rights. So I'm not talking about people who have committed crimes, sorry I wasn't specific about that in the question.Yes, I think that it is necessary sometimes to deny people their rights because they are too dangerous to others--murderers, pedophiles, some kinds of mentally ill people for instance. Some of these people need to be corraled, unfortunately, for the safety of the rest of us.
Is a majority of voters ever justified in denying rights to an individual who has violated the rights of no one?