Aquinas did not use motion in the sense that modern physicists do (i.e., a change in position) but in an Aristotelian sense, analagous to how we might use the word "event."
Out of curiosity I looked up what Aristotle considered as motion. According to Wikipedia he has a number of concepts where motion is involved: Natural motion, Terrestrial motion, Rectilinear motion, Celestial motion, and Speed, weight and resistance. None of his concepts come near to what we call an "event." Is there another source that defines motion as an event?
In essence what you're saying is that isotopic decay is evidence that motion occurs causelessly, provided entropy is at work. But entropy is itself a cause. The thing that causes isotopic decay is the thing that caused the isotope to form in the first place, just as surely as the thing that causes a compressed spring to "burst" is the removal of the force that caused it to compress in the first place.
Entropy is not a cause of anything. It is a measure of a state of a system. Your spring example is not caused by spontaneous quantum tunneling as in isotopic decay. A spring release requires an action.
Again, the appearance of matter existing in multiple states simultaneously, as well as the appearance of spontaneous virtual particles, are evidence of the extreme bias of our infertial frame. This is understood to be a problem in quantum mechanics, not an answer to anything.
Again, existence of a superposition of multiple states simultaneously in matter is experimentally verified and is the basis for the emerging field of "quantum computing." Look it up. A simple example in wiki: "a bit must be either 0 or 1, a qubit can be 0, 1, or a superposition of both"
It really is not a problem in QM. Yes, it is unintuitive like most of QM. Maybe that is why you think it is a problem. It's not. Why do you think it is?
If you could observe the particle in its own inertial frame, it would exist in one state only.
This statement makes no sense. It is not a problem in any inertial frame. That follows easily from the special theory of relativity. Look up "inertial frame of reference."
I don't see it as contrary at all. The "firstness" of Aquinas' "first cause" refers to primacy of logical, not temporal, priority.
And again, our observation of the bizarre behavior of particles at the quantum level is itself an artifact of our situation in a biased inertial frame.
Again that is not true at all. Where did you get this "information".
This, incidentally, is why the gross caricature of the First Cause argument advanced by most modern atheists ("everything that exists has a cause, the universe exists, therefore the universe must have had a cause") falls short. Aquinas himself famously refused to assert that the universe had a beginning because he felt (a) it was unnecessary to assert it, and (b) it was probably not demonstrable, anyway.
I agree with Aquinas in that.
Civil law cannot provide a moral basis for judging the offender. And at any rate, again, I am not concerned with whether the physician would get away with his crime or if he'd be caught and punished, but whether or not he is morally in the wrong. According to consequentialism, he acted in the right: he is not only not a villain but must be lauded as a hero.
As I said, in that regard I am not a consequentialist.
I gathered as much, but that's irrelevant (as is the discussion on QM; I asked for an objection to natural law, not the Five Ways). The problem here is that your basis for objecting to natural law is that you a priori object to natural law -- because it does not provide a means for reaching the conclusions you've reached a priori.
I already gave you an analysis of natural law, but you equivocated and didn't provide a clear picture of how we disagreed on a point that I thought we did agree.
I simply don't abide by a formal and theoretical moral basis. It seems that every moral theory has holes in it, in the same way that all economic theory, psychiatry, and the hard sciences have holes. Research in these fields progress with minds open to new ideas.
The theology that you are espousing is based on very very old concepts of the physical laws of nature that have been discredited long ago. Basing theology on Aristotle and Aquinas is as intellectually bankrupt as trying to design a mission to Jupiter using Aristotle's geocentric "crystal spheres".
As far as current physics, you put together sentences with physical terms that are either wrong or don't make sense. I am trying to be serious in this discussion, but I am beginning to think you are just pulling my leg.