Yes Rob, the fixed assets called slaves were in some cases depreciated at an advanced rate to ease the cost of the assets being retired. It's GAAP nothing strange or different.
In 2015 slavery is generally viewed as an abomination (outside of Africa) but in mid 1800s it was not. You may not like that it was so but you don't get to change historical fact.
It is entirely hypocritical to argue on one hand for the government protection of your property and and on the other use that same argument to justify the removal of any and all freedoms from a group of people. That argument is not new and certainly was around in the 1800s. You also cannot just gloss over the abolitionist movement in this country, the banning of slavery before 1800 by Great Britain - and then their banning of participation in the slave trade in 1807 I think. To argue that in the mid 1800s slavery was viewed as a non issue is simply false.
Further, you cannot reasonably make this argument and ignore the reality that slavery was a major issue that lead to Civil War. You don't secede from the Union over something that is no big deal.
And as much as it disturbs you today, it was legal to trade in slaves at that time. But you wanted slaves freed and offer no compensation ? Why is it OK to seize legal assets thereby bankrupting the people who traded for them?
I think this excerpt from Lincoln himself sums it well:
"Nearly eighty years ago we began by declaring that all men are created equal; but now from that beginning we have run down to the other declaration, that for some men to enslave others is a "sacred right of self-government. ... Our republican robe is soiled and trailed in the dust. Let us repurify it. ... Let us re-adopt the Declaration of Independence, and with it, the practices, and policy, which harmonize with it. ... If we do this, we shall not only have saved the Union: but we shall have saved it, as to make, and keep it, forever worthy of the saving."
As for freeing the slaves with no compensation - Lincoln did not order the Emancipation Proclamation until 1863 - well after the South had started the Civil War. At that time, those who you wanted protected under the force of United States law had been in open, treasonous rebellion against the United States for several years. They deserved no protection under the law. They deserved to be summarily defeated and bankrupted for their own actions in rebellion - as was the case.
You either pay fair market in cash or allow them to depreciate to
Offer compensation in the form of lower taxes. This is what every other colonial country (European countries generally) did as early as 1830s.
Lincoln had no legal or political means to reacquire the CSA except to paint them as rebelling against the USA. So he forced an un necessary confrontation. He had to have the south as it was the cash cow that paid for all his pork and.vote buying.
He did not realize it would take so long to do it. He also needed to change the 3/5ths rule as it risked his party's chances for reelection. Did you know Abe was elected with zero e l ectorial college votes ? Suppise that was a concern ?
So the Civil War was political. Those 600k dead must have been so proud.
Lincoln was not elected with no electoral votes...he was elected with about 40% of the popular vote - if that is what you are getting at.
The CSA did rebel against the United States - and of course the Civil War was political - all wars are political. Those 600,000 dead answered the question of whether states could secede and ultimately eliminated the slavery abomination in the US once and for all.