Could you demostrate the veracity of this statement please?
From kant's 'general principle of the metaphysics of morals':
"Now all imperatives command either hypothetically or categorically. The former represent the
practical necessity of a possible action as means to something else that is willed (or at least which one might will). The categorical imperative would be that which represented an action as
necessary of itself without reference to another end, i.e. as objectively necessary..."
and
"...Now I say:
man and generally any rational being exists as an end in himself, not merely as a means to be arbitrarily used by this or that will, but in all actions, whether they concern himself or other rational beings, must be
always regarded at the same time as an end."
(my highlights)
I think that "intuitively logical" is an oxymoron. Logic specifically denies intuition, and intuition is intuition because it DOES NOT rely on logic. This is more baseless religious blather, semantically null, and logically vacant.
All logical conceptions (such as mathematics) start with basic axioms. Axioms have
NO rigorous proof nor require one because they are
INTUITIVELY TRUE.
I direct you to the commutative property of binary operation in the set of real numbers, (which is incidentally, included in my son's first grade math):
a+b = b+a and a*b=b*a
The worst thing that religion does is deny people their humanity, it denies them the existence that their Creator gave them and it does this on the basis of religious bigotry authored by human beings with overweening egos. If you are a homosexual and mutually in love, then expressing that love is a manifestation of God within you (no less than expressing the God-within in a heterosexual love) and your expression of the God within you should be trampled upon by bigots.
The human sexual act, viewed by the rc church, consists both a
unitive and pro-creative aspect - both being inseparable halves of a coherent and rational whole.
What purpose in human love or nature does homo-eroticism address?
What "command of human dignity" made the Catholic Church torture people in the Inquisition? The Catholic Church stands out amongst the all the other Christian sects for it's violence and violation of human dignity.
That is why john paul II made the millenium apology.
Do you know what it means for someone holding an office endowed (dogmatically) with moral infallibility to do such a thing? But it needed to be said openly if the church were to continue its teaching authority.
Which is infinitely more than anyone can say about any other christian sect.
The baseless, senseless, unsupportable, and truly insufferable pogrom against homosexual people makes a mockery of everything for which Jesus stood. The Dark Ages were dark because of the Catholic Church more than anything else.
Have you even read ANY church encyclical that would give you a right to make such an indictment?