Some people have the same appetites for exclusively blonde, or large chested, or what not. Are you inclined to classify them in a particular category of 'existence' as well?
Sociologically speaking, there is no commonality between these people. Societies have never much cared if men preferred women with blonde hair. Societies have cared if men preferred men. The classification was already there; recognizing it and encouraging it today are the first steps to equalizing it and eventually tearing down its differentiation.
In other words, you can make that argument...in a couple hundred years.
Correct. Usage does not imply intellectual rigor. While the definition may be sufficient for everyday meaning, it may not stand the scrutiny of debate.
Anyone else astounded by the role reversal? I'm the gay marriage advocate and I'm defending a dictionary definition.
I guess the difference is that the dictionary definition of "homosexual" is grounded in scientific fact, whereas the definition of marriage is grounded in a few thousand years of societal injustice.
I do not insist on differentiating them. I am merely demonstrating its absurdity in the context of everyday language. A homosexual who does not practice homosexuality is meaningless, in the same way that a murderer who killed no one is meaningless, in the same way that a sociopath who does not manifest any sociopathic behavior is meaningless.
A homosexual who does not practice homosexuality is neither absurd nor meaningless, because we must ask
why he or she is not practicing what is natural for him to practice. Once again I'm speaking sociologically. The sociological factors that encourage murderers not to murder are generally positive (we don't like murder); the sociological factors that discourage homosexuals from doing what is natural for them are negative.
Your inability to recognize the validity of sexual orientation is also negative, by the way, as it would easily be construed as an attempt to diminish who and what they are, and what they've been through over the years.
If you deny that homosexuality exists without homosexual action, then you deny that thousands (probably millions) of homosexuals were forced to live in fear of what they were for the last couple thousand years. I'm betting you wouldn't deny that women have been similarly mistreated - but then, the differences between women and the men who oppressed them are much more easily discernible than the differences between homosexuals and the heterosexuals who oppressed them.
That would be the logical conclusion of the argument.
You said that you would not insist on differentiating them...yet you still wouldn't refer to all three as homosexuals. I'm sorry, but that's "differentiating" in my book.
And a self-identity that does not manifest in one's being is meaningless.
Utterly untrue. A self-identity which is forced to not manifest by society has a lot of meaning, as it is a form of repression and will build over the years.
The operation of logic and natural law is more powerful.
Care to explain what this means in the context of what you were responding to?
Fear is not a condition conducive to human existence.
Finally, something we agree on.
There is nothing natural about indulging all concieveable appetites. And it is precisely the function of the reasoning faculty to subvert the appetites that accrue to no concieveable good.
So what are you suggesting? That people with these "appetites" (gotta say I'm getting sick of using that word) suppressed them in themselves for thousands of years because no "conceivable good" would come from them? "Good" to whom exactly?
Or are you suggesting that society's constraints upon homosexuals were justified in that homosexual behavior contributes no "conceivable good" to society? Because if you are, not only do I disagree with your logic, but with your opinion as well.
You premise your argument by stating that he IS a homosexual, and subsequently ask if he is not, in fact, a homosexual.
What do you want me to say?
I want you to answer the question. I want you to tell me that you think that frightening someone with a homosexual orientation into not practicing homosexuality makes that man something other than a homosexual.
That does fit with your argument, doesn't it?
You have already demonstrated, and I agreed, that fear is not a condition of human existence. And when a human person lives in a condition not conducive to such an existence, it normally results in logical inconsistencies.
That does not make the inconsistent consistent. It does however, define the imperatives of the human condition.
Understand?
Yes, I understand that you didn't answer the question, but instead dodged.
I'll ask again and cross my fingers for something resembling a straight answer: If you can frighten someone with a homosexual orientation into not practicing homosexual activities, thereby making that person something other than a homosexual, can you frighten a Jewish person into not practicing Jewish activities and therefore remove that person's Judaism?
You say that homosexuality is thought-based, and yet, one cannot be a homosexual by simply trying to empathize. You need to actually 'feel' it.
But the rational relationship between a feeling and its corresponding action may not always be clear. One may be a homosexual for want of, say, paternal love - or one may sublime a sexual inclination for the same sex.
In the end, you have a definition that is utterly ambiguous for the purpose of any intelligent discussion.
Sexual orientation is defined as "an enduring emotional, romantic, sexual, or affectional attraction to another person," by the American Psychological Association. This is not all that ambiguous.
http://www.apa.org/topics/orientation.html
Same can be said with most thoughts. That's no reason to give vent to all thoughts.
What I meant was that homosexuality is not a conscious thought. I'm not sure that came across.
And if you simply listen to your own urges, then you would realize that you are saddled with a great many 'predilections'. One cannot simply cast you in a mold of your predilection, nor are you obliged to satisfy all of them.
And yet people have been "cast into a mold of (their) predilection(s)" for centuries, which is why we even bother to take all this time distinguishing homosexuality from heterosexuality. If society had never decided that homosexuality was wrong, all these things would still be facts, but no one would care enough to research them, as the behavior would be open and acceptable and wouldn't have any history of oppression (kind of like your blonde-loving men).
Ockham's razor, originally, is a principle in the reductionist philosophy of nominalism. It suggests parsimony in the assumption of MODES OF EXISTENCE.
In your previous argument, you are assuming a MULTIPLICITY IN THE STATE-OF-BEING of an individual human being. A certain inclination for this or that appetite IS NOT a reason for you to assign a different set of logical rules for an individual.
The erasure of societal inequality is.
No.
Genes do not preclude the fundamental operation of choice - regardless of any statistical correlation between genes and behavior. Choice is the natural and logical consequence of free will.
That has always been my position since the beginning.
I am not denying the existence of free will.
Did I say anything about anti-sodomy anything?
Here is what you said:
The point of civilization is to subvert human appetites to a discernable good through the operations of logic.
Civilization's attempts to "subvert" the "human appetites" of those who would prefer those of the same gender resulted in harsh anti-sodomy laws and other restrictions/oppressive dictates. I'd like to know what "discernible good" came of this. Or, for that matter, what's logical about it.