Coyote
Well-Known Member
Yes, women and their property both became the property of the man. Much of marriage law was enacted for the protection of both women and children.
Not necessarily. It depends on the culture you are talking about. Marriage was also about political alliances.
The point is: the definition of marriage has changed many times over. It is primarily a legal contract that endows certain benefits on a particular group of people. Why should any two consenting adults who wish to form a permanent union be denied these legal benifits and protections? Why is it considered "special rights" for one and not for the other?