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Oh, this old myth. Anyone who reads the original text knows that this is just careful editing to support a free market ideology.


The decision to move away from communal work was done in 1623, but there is no indication that the problems of famine were caused by the communal system.


In fact, there are many examples of famine occurring after they switched to a private system.


If the famines were caused by communal labour, why did they continue after the communal labour stopped?


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