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I see the point that you are attempting to make -- but you don't make it with this graph. 1) Correlation does not automatically mean causation.2) The point about the share of "aggregate income" is a bogus metric. If the "rich" are just outpacing the growth of the middle, then the middle's share of the aggregate income will decline -- but that does not mean they are worse off.
I see the point that you are attempting to make -- but you don't make it with this graph.
1) Correlation does not automatically mean causation.
2) The point about the share of "aggregate income" is a bogus metric. If the "rich" are just outpacing the growth of the middle, then the middle's share of the aggregate income will decline -- but that does not mean they are worse off.
