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If the money belonged to free Iranians under the Shah then why did bozo take it upon himself to give the money belonging to the Shah and the Iranian people to the murderous thugs who wickedly overthrew the Shah and brutally subjected the Iranian people?  Furthermore, if the money was being held for the Shah for forty years while courts deliberated the disposition of the money why did bozo take it upon himself just weeks before the SCOTUS ruled to give the money to terrorists that the SCOTUS ruled just weeks afterward did not belong to the terrorists?


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